<GetPassage xmlns:tei="http://www.tei-c.org/ns/1.0" xmlns="http://chs.harvard.edu/xmlns/cts">
            <request>
                <requestName>GetPassage</requestName>
                <requestUrn>urn:cts:latinLit:phi0474.phi008.perseus-eng2:49-52</requestUrn>
            </request>
            <reply>
                <urn>urn:cts:latinLit:phi0474.phi008.perseus-eng2:49-52</urn>
                <passage>
                    <TEI xmlns="http://www.tei-c.org/ns/1.0"><text xml:lang="eng"><body><div type="translation" xml:lang="eng" n="urn:cts:latinLit:phi0474.phi008.perseus-eng2" subtype="translation"><div type="textpart" subtype="section" n="49" resp="perseus"><p> Now, then, you cannot deny that violence was offered. The
    question now is, how he was driven away who was prevented from approaching. For a man who is
    driven away must manifestly be removed and thrust down from the place which he is occupying. And
    how can that happen to a man who absolutely never was in the place at all from which he says
    that he was driven? What shall we say? If he had been there, and if under the influence of fear,
    he had fled from the place when he saw the armed men, would you then say that he had been driven
    away? I think so. Will you then, who decide disputes with such care and such subtlety, by
    expressions and not by equity,—you who interpret laws, not by the common advantage of the
    citizen, but by their letter,—will you be able to say that a man has been driven away who has
    never been touched? What! Will you say that he has been thrust down from his place? For that was
    the word which the praetors used formerly to use in their interdicts. What do you say? Can any
    one be thrust down who is not touched? Must we not, if we will stick to the strict letter,
    understand that that man only is thrust down on whom hands are laid? It is quite inevitable, I
    say, if we wish to make words and facts tally exactly with each other, that no one should be
    decided to have been thrust down, unless he be understood to have had hands laid on him, and so
    to have been removed and pushed headlong down by personal violence. But how can any one have
    been treated so, unless he has been removed from a higher place to a lower one?</p></div><div type="textpart" subtype="section" n="50" resp="perseus"><p> A man may have been driven away, he may have been put to flight, he may have
    been cast out; but it is absolutely impossible for any one to have been pushed down, not only
    who has never been touched, but who, if he has been touched, has been touched on even and level
    ground. What then? Are we to think that this interdict was framed for the sake of those men
    alone, who could say that they had been precipitated from high ground? for those are the only
    people who can properly be said to have been driven down. <note anchored="true">The whole of
     this is quite untranslatable so as to give in English the sense which the Latin bears. The
     truth is, that it is a sort of play on the word <foreign xml:lang="lat">dejicio</foreign>, which
     is the Latin word used, and which not only means to drive away, its technical and proper
     meaning here, but also to throw down, which is the meaning which Cicero harps upon.</note>
    <milestone n="18" unit="chapter" resp="yonge"/>
   <milestone unit="para"/>Shall we not, when the intention, and design, and meaning of the interdict is thoroughly
    understood, think it the most excessive impudence, or the most extraordinary folly, to haggle
    about a verbal mistake? and not only to pass over, but even to desert and betray the real merits
    of the case, and the common advantage of all the citizens? </p></div><div type="textpart" subtype="section" n="51" resp="perseus"><p> Is
    this doubtful, that there is not such an abundance of words,—I will not say in our language,
    which is confessedly poor, but not in any other language either,—as to enable every imaginable
    thing and circumstance to be expressed by its own fixed end appropriate name? Is it doubtful
    that we have no need of words when the matter, for the sake of which words were first invented,
    is thoroughly understood? What law, what resolution of the senate, what edict of a magistrate,
    what treaty, or covenant, (to return to men's private affairs,) what will, what judicial
    decision, what bond, what formula of bargain or agreement cannot be invalidated and torn to
    pieces, if we choose to bend facts to words, and leave out of the question the intention, and
    design, and authority of those who wrote them? </p></div><div type="textpart" subtype="section" n="52" resp="perseus"><p> In truth, even
    our familiar and daily discourse will cease to have any coherence, if we are to spend all our
    time in word catching. Lastly, there will be no such thing at all as any domestic rule, if we
    grant this to our slaves, that they are to obey the letter of our commands, and not attend to
    what may be gathered from the spirit of our expressions. Must I produce instances of all these
    things? Do not different examples in each separate glass occur to every one of you, which may be
    a proof that right does not depend only on the strict words of the law, but that words are meant
    to be subservient to the intentions and purposes of men? </p></div></div></body></text></TEI>
                </passage>
            </reply>
            </GetPassage>